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|FS613||Posted - 02 February 2009 17:19
L'Chvod Rabbi Moderator:
How should one answer a "Modern Orthodox" close relative of mine, who is inviting many non-observant Jewish relatives to drive to her son's Bar Mitzvah on Shabbos, without any intention of having them put up by neighbors?
I live out of her immediate area, so she is having me and my family put up at the home of an observant family, within walking distance of her family's Shul. She is only having put up in her home, and in the very few homes of neighbors, the few observant relatives.
I know that she is inviting the non-observant Jewish relatives to drive on Shabbos, because I found in the invitation envelope, printed driving directions to her family's Shul where the Bar Mitzvah is going to be on Shabbos (it's going to take the non-observant Jews about an hour to drive there), and she admitted that she's doing it.
When I said something to her about this, in a nice way, so that she shouldn't do it, and maybe just ask those people to come only to the Sunday formal affair,
she then said to me: "So how come you are allowed to pay a caterer before or after Shabbos, to serve you on Shabbos; and if you have a boys' singing group whom you pay before or after Shabbos to sing for you on Shabbos at the Bar Mitzvah Kiddush after Shul, how come it's allowed, because it's considered like they're practicing."
I didn't know how to answer her.
PS The boys' singing group is a capella group who sings on Shabbos at Simchas.
|fire88||Posted - 08 February 2009 18:52
mayb i just didn't understand this part, but im a bit confuzed.
there's nothing wrong w/ having jews do non-melacha things on shabbos, that they're being paid for (like acapella groups and waitressing) but that's not the issue. she's causing her non-frum relatives to be intentionally mechalel shabbos. the issue is the chillul shabbos. her rationale didn't make sense.
|taon||Posted - 23 February 2009 21:59
Honestly, I don't see the comparison. I don't know about the choir, but the catering is allowed under certain conditions, and using the halachic principle of Havla'ah, because most of the work is done beforehand. And it's non-jews. In her case, she's needlessly causing Jews to violate Shabbos. It may be allowed, under certain conditions, but this doesn't sound like they apply. Why would it be okay?
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