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|trying2shteig||Posted - 02 June 2008 16:40
I don't know if this has been discussed elsewhere, but pretty much all the proofs i have ever heard for G-d's existence are against aethiests. but what about ACTUAL avoda zara- hinduism for example? how do u disprove that there is only one G-d and not like 30 different ones? i don't believe in any of that of course, but i've just never seen any proofs against it.
again- i'm a totally frum jew. i just want to understand how we can disprove hinduism for example.
|MODERATOR||Posted - 02 June 2008 20:49
The reason it isn't discussed often is because it isn't as much of a test, the problem rarely comes up. Plus, the temptation for avodah zarah is lowered to being no more than any other temptation. But we have discussed this, and provided answers. For example, How can there be two first causes? Or, how can these gods be perfect, as we know G-d must be. Can they destroy each other? If yes, they're not gods, if no, that's a weakness! Do they depend on each other? And many things along the same lines. For a third example, there is nothing in the world which shows any sign of multiple creators. Every single thing in the enitre world co-operates exactly with everything else to maintain an order. Move something around, and you've disrupted nature! Along the same lines, everything is made out of the same basic elements. If they were created by multiple beings, they wouldn't be alike at all. And proofs to Judaism naturally disprove the religions.
|thinkingitover||Posted - 03 June 2008 20:45
i was once in a class and someone asked the teacher, "if Hashem can do anything, can He destroy Himself?" and the teacher didn't really answer. but is that even a valid question (or is it like, "can G-d make a rock so heavy that He can't lift it?"), and if so, what's the answer? how do we understand that?
|MODERATOR||Posted - 03 June 2008 21:00
This was already discussed. Please see the below thread "G-d's omnipotence" or the thread "brilliant question".
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